German philosopher and sociologist Max Weber says that only STATE has a monopoly of the legitimate use of force within a given territory. It means that a state exists so long as it has a monopoly of violence--of course apart from its other obligations. Furthermore, only states have the right to declare war.
In the light of Weber's idea of state Pakistan exists no more: it has lost its monopoly of violence over the years. Pakistan as a state has declared a war on terror, while home-grown non-state actors have declared war on the very state of Pakistan.
In a functioning state courts hand down punishments to the convicts which are executed by the executive (another organ of the state). However, in Pakistan, individuals and militant outfits punish people summarily in blithe disregard to judiciary (second organ of the state) and the executive.
I am wondering whether a state can claim its existence in the absence of any functioning organ?
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